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Hey, This question is getting me sooo pissed off, mainly because I keep screwing it up. Can someone help me?

Prove this equation (e.g., 1 + sin (x) = 1 + sin (x); 1 = 1)

This one isn't done that way but here it is:

1 + sin (x)...+....cos (x)....=......2
----------- ....---------- ....-------
..cos (x)........1 + sin (x).......cos (x)

(.... [dots] there only to space the fractions)
THANKS

By Mbg (Mbg) on Thursday, March 04, 2004 - 07:43 pm: Edit

This is easy one

(statement on the left) is equal to:

(1 + sinX)^2 + (cosX)^2
--------------------------- =
cosX * (1 + sinX)

1 + 2*sinX + (sinX)^2 + (cosX)^2
=-------------------------------------=
cosX * (1 + sinX)

2 * (1 + sinX)
=----------------------=
cosX * (1 + sinX)
2
=-----------------
cosX

By Wunderkind__Not (Wunderkind__Not) on Thursday, March 04, 2004 - 10:01 pm: Edit

bump